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  1. #1
    Bill Smith's Avatar
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    If someone called "Philip" were to inherit the throne of the United Kingdom, would

    he be Philip I or II? In other words, would "King Philip," the husband of Mary I who jointly ruled England with his wife during her lifetime, count in the ordinal numbering of monarchs?

  2. #2
    flyingbug's Avatar
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    For the throne of the United Kingdom, he would simply be known as King Philip. He would have no need for a number until there is another Philip.

    The King Philip who married Mary I was King of Spain (he only got to be King of England during Mary's lifetime).

  3. #3
    TYTONIDAE's Avatar
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    Just plain Philip,as with Stephen 1135-1154,John 1199-1216 ,Anne 1702-1714,if another Philip gets to the Throne then we it would be numbered.

  4. #4
    DANIEL W's Avatar
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    No, because Philip II of Spain is not included as a Monarch otherwise he would have taken the throne after his wife's death. The only true Joint Monarchy was William III and Mary II.

    If we had a king who ruled using the name Philip he would by King Philip (no number unless there was later King Philip) - Queen Elizabeth I was just known as Queen Elizabeth (of England) until 1952.

  5. #5
    Josh's Avatar
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    Phillip I. Mary I husband was only created a king consort (something that has not been done since in the United Kingdom or its constituent realms probably because of how unpopular he was a King (consort)). Only a reigning king gets the numerals. Like in the case of William III who was actually created co sovereign with his wife.

  6. #6
    Diana Tais's Avatar
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    Yes, Philip of Spain was King Regnant of England.

    Under the terms of the marriage treaty, Philip was to enjoy Mary I's titles and honours for as long as their marriage should last. Their joint royal style (after Philip ascended the Spanish throne in 1556) was: Philip and Mary, by the Grace of God King and Queen of England, Spain, France, Jerusalem, both the Sicilies and Ireland, Defenders of the Faith, Archdukes of Austria, Dukes of Burgundy, Milan and Brabant, Counts of Habsburg, Flanders and Tirol.

    Acts which made it high treason to deny Philip's royal authority were passed in Ireland and England. The Privy Council instructed that Philip and Mary should be joint signatories of royal documents, and this was enacted by an Act of Parliament. As the new King of England could not read English, it was ordered that a note of all matters of state should be made in Latin or Spanish. Philip and Mary appeared on coins together, with a single crown suspended between them as a symbol of joint reign. The Great Seal shows Philip and Mary seated on thrones, holding the crown together. The coat of arms of England was impaled with Philip's to denote their joint reign. All official documents, including Acts of Parliament, were to be dated with both their names, and Parliament was to be called under the joint authority of the couple.

    The numeral of the next British Monarch ascending to the Throne under the name “Philip” is debatable; both Philip I and Philip II are possible. Although Philip of Spain (Queen Mary I’s husband) was King Regnant of England and Ireland, it was only for the duration of their marriage, so he’s often not mentioned in the list of 'proper' Monarchs (the ones which usually omit Empress Matilda and Jane Grey as well).

    The reason why the next “King Philip” may chose to be known as “Philip I”, rather than “Philip II”, is that Philip is not exactly a very popular figure in English/British history. The wars he wages against France (and which England supported, although a special clause in the terms of the marriage treaty stipulated that Mary wasting obliged to support Philip's wars) cost England its last bastion on the mainland – the port Calais. And of course, it was Philip who sent the Spanish Armada to invade England during the reign of Elizabeth I.

  7. #7
    dart's Avatar
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    He didn't "jointly rule", so...I.

    He ruled Spain, she ruled England.


    Actually, Ali, very funny, except Prince Charles could choose to reign under the name of Philip...so, he would be Philip I should he choose that name.

  8. #8
    Aida's Avatar
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    Although Philip of Spain was recognized as King and co-ruler during his marriage to Mary I of England, it was made clear from the first that that role would end with her death, as it did. His position was actually only that of king consort. The only REAL co-monarchs of England or Great Britain were WIlliam III and Mary II, who were the son-in-law and daughter of James II. In their case, although Mary, who had a closer claim to the throne, died first, William continued to reign until his death. If a man named Philip ever became King of England/Great Britain/the UK, he would be simply Philip (as Kings Stephen and John and Queens Anne and Victoria, as the only monarchs with their respective names, are numberless) until a second Philip ascended the throne, at which time the one and only Philip would become known as Philip I.

  9. #9
    Ali Ibn's Avatar
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    He would be known as, "that new Philip guy we didn't even know about."

  10. #10
    Ali Ibn's Avatar
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    He would be known as, "that new Philip guy we didn't even know about."

 

 

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