how can blood gp. A be transfused into recipient of AB? (or B into AB) i get it that AB doesn't have antibodies A or B so RBCs of the donor would be safe but wouldn't the anti-B antibodies of donor(A) attack the antigens of AB gp which has BOTH the antigens on its RBCs.
same thing goes for blood gp B being transfused to AB.

btw this line is from my book ''If incompatible blood is transfused then either the antibodies of the recipient destroy the RBCs of donor OR the antibodies of donor hemolyze the RBCs of recipient''

furthermore AB could be given to AB so maybe if it were given to someone with A or B then the anti-B or anti-A antibodies(respectively) would attack the antigens A& B of AB person...???

in which case my point makes sense i guess? am i wrong? plz say
thanks