Why does the Good News Bible refer to Barabbas at Mt 27:15 as Jesus Barabbas?

03-27-2009, 09:02 AM

I know of no other translation that does that and the Interlinear Translation of the Greek Sciptures does not say that. My bible study mentioned that today and I asked her what bible she was reading and told her to look at the front of the bible. She said it was the Good News Bible.

03-27-2009, 09:06 AM

not an accurate translation of the bible. suggest to her that she needs a real translation. if she wants a more modern one that is still reliable, a good one is the New Living Translation (it is not word-for-word but conveys the original meanings and doesn't deviate from the truth). the NIV is even more reliable than that, and still easy to read. (another one to avoid is the Message Bible)

**NISSI** · 03-27-2009, 09:07 AM

I checked a couple different Bibles I own and they say that's his Greek name.
I found the name " Jesus Barabbas " in a Nelson Study Bible, a New Century Version Bible, a Thompson-Chain Bible and also a Companion Bible ( My Companion Bible is written in King James version, Amplified, Hebrew and Greek ).
It says NU-Text reads Jesus Barabbas.
NU-Text is the variations from the traditional text that generally represents the Alexandrian or Egyptian type of text described previously in the New Testament " Text ". They are found in the Critical Text published in the 26th edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament ( N ) and the united Bible societies' 3rd edition ( U ), hence the acronym, " NU-Text ".

03-27-2009, 09:07 AM

Because thats his name in that book
Barabbas also means 'Son of the father"
so we have Jesus son of the father OR 'Jesus son of the father'
the verse is actually MATT 27:16

**EvangelistPaul** · 03-27-2009, 09:14 AM

Mat 27:15 Now at that feast the governor was wont to release unto the people a prisoner, whom they would.
Mat 27:16 And they had then a notable prisoner, called Barabbas. (KJV)

Stay away from these modern translations. They all use the Westcott and Hort manuscripts and those two guys were satanist, and very anti-christ.

The original text does not have the name "Jesus" in it. Why the Good news version adds it is still a mystery.

The word "Barabbas" is from two words.... "Bar" which means "son", and "abba" which means "Father". His name literally means, "son of his father". Has nothing to do with Jesus at all.

**cyberme** · 03-27-2009, 09:19 AM

This is what I found:

"Some early Greek manuscripts of Matthew present Barabbas' name twice as Jesus bar Abbas: manuscripts in the Caesarean group of texts, the Sinaitic Palimpsest, the Palestinian Syriac lectionaries and some of the manuscripts used by Origen in the 3rd century, all support the fact that Barabbas' name was originally Jesus Barabbas, though not all modern New Testament translations reflect this. Origen consciously rejected the reading in the manuscript he was working with, and left out "Iesous" deliberately, for reverential considerations, certainly a strongly motivated omission. Early editors did not want the name Jesus associated with anyone who was a sinner. Mark's parallels between the two men, each a "Jesus, son of the Father," constructing a parable, may also have been considered overplayed (see below).

The alternative possibility, that "Jesus" was unintentionally inserted twice before Barabbas' name, in verses 16 and 17, is unlikely, especially since Barabbas is mentioned first in each verse (thus, dittography is ruled out). Further, the addition of "called the Christ" to Jesus' name (Iesous ton legomenon Christon) in verse 17 makes better sense if Barabbas is also called "Jesus" (Iesous ton Barabbas). Otherwise, a mere "Jesus" would have been sufficient to distinguish the two."